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Music Theory Strangeness


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#1 OFFLINE   gcwannab

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Posted 13 April 2011 - 08:54 AM

Why do the 2 and 3 chords of a major key(Diatonic minor chords) sound so good as majors or 7ths when played in the relative minor key?
When played as major or Dom they seem to fit much better in the minor key than in the corresponding major key even though they still contain non diatonic notes? Ex. Key of (D-) G,G7, A,A7, all sound pretty good in D- progressions; but don't sound nearly as good in F progressions.
Thanks

#2 OFFLINE   Kirk Lorange

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Posted 13 April 2011 - 06:02 PM

Perhaps because they can be IV and V chords of Dm ... in minor keys, the iv and v chords can be either major or minor. IV and V chords are primary chords and have a strong function within the key.


In F, they become 'majorized' ii and iii chords, which are less common and have a weaker role in the major key. They tend to sound like V chords of an imminent key change.

That's all I can think of. Anyone else?

#3 OFFLINE   gcwannab

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Posted 14 April 2011 - 08:20 AM

Just a thought. Another reason similar to what Kirk said: The G and A function as the 4 and 5 so to speak in the key of D- and our ears are accustomed to accepting blues harmony which is essentially maj and/or Dom chords played in a minor key.

#4 OFFLINE   Fretsource

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Posted 16 April 2011 - 09:12 AM

To put it another way, In the key of F, the chords G and A are not part of the key. The chord G major contains the note B, and A Major contains the note C# both of which are foreign to the key of F.

In the relative minor key of D minor, however, those notes do belong. They are part of the D melodic minor scale (D E F G A B C# D)





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