Thanks karceyfor your time, much appreciated!
I got some answers from Donald Duck,
in this youtube video. Apparently Pythagoras worked with ratios, 'A' being at 440Hz and i guess at both 220Hz and 880Hz being an 'A' one octave above and one below respectively? All the other notes between, the chromatic notes, being specific ratios. I think. But from what I have read (not much, still reading

) the note 'A' at 440Hz is arbitrary and was decided by the International Organization for Standardization in 1955, so called 'standard pitch' perhaps? So although the absolute value seems to be arbitrary, the relative values for the chromatic notes are dictated through mathematics.
I guess Indian music threw me slightly, because it doesn't work through keys or scales, no progressions or counterpoint or anything major or minor yet they can still sound as 'good' as western music and for now I don’t know why. I'm still reading up and will update this post if I pursue it further.
To answer my own question apparently there aren't a multitude of keys, just major and minor as far as the western music theory takes us.
So what I've really learnt is that I have to learn a lot more to answer my questions. It seems perhaps that scales and keys are rules in western music, all based on math, but that these rules can be bent so theory only serves to be a guide as far as it is ‘true’ mathematically, not the be all and end all of what can sound good. The ambiguity in 3s and b3s aren’t so much rules as they are a bending of the rules, a bending to a particular subjective taste, I think.
Still though I need to read a lot more. What was frustrating me was hearing of blues and jazz progressions following a pattern, of say I IV V, yet using notes that breached the rules of the key from which the pattern was first derived, like b3s in a scale over a major chord. So there seemed to be rules but then ambiguity.
Off to read…
* If anybody has anything to contribute please feel free!